I mostly just wanted to see what folks here thought of this post and
its predecessor. I regret that I cannot spell homicide and cannot edit
the title.
ETA: I don’t even want to argue the point here: that’s just wrestling
a pig. What’s shocking to me about this piece is the *certainty* of
Scott’s conclusions. We had an unprecedented global pandemic, nationwide
lockdowns, economic dislocation, school closures and large-scale
protests and policing changes all within a space of three months. How
can you possibly have any confidence that one of these unprecedented
changes is *the* cause? Scott doesn’t have a convincing answer to this
question, nor does he qualify his claim: he states that the protests are
the *primary* contributor and then tosses away any countervailing
evidence (e.g., clear evidence that the spike began before the protests)
as “outliers” or just dismisses them outright. There’s no mask here,
there isn’t even makeup.
Dont worry he also thinks the agressive lgbt protests didnt help or made their case worse in the 70/80s.
He is the walking tone police, and like all cops he will just ignore all other evidence.
I read that whole post and the whole comment section and only one guy pointed out that the gun sales statistic is meaningless since most guns are illegal and wouldn't be recorded. Either they were brought through an individual sale (likely) or stolen, both of which are not stats that are picked up.
Because of that it's entirely possible for a 2% uplift in gun sales to result in 30% uplift in murders, we don't know the actual numbers, but it could have been a 500% uplift in arms sold in individual sales to felons during that time.
I can’t be bothered to read the run-on dribbled drivel (ribble?) in
full, but does Scott at any point wrestle with the fact that the murder
rate in the U.S. is absolute bonkers compared to other western
countries? The charts he has in the original post show the US at 6
murders per 100,00 and the UK at 10 murders per million. You’d
think a full 6x difference in the murder rate would cause him to pause
and wonder whether the policing was really all that effective. Not only
that, but, why are any of these murders occurring at all? How does that
intersect with the pandemic going into its 4th month? Maybe the fact
that the pandemic help came mainly in the form of unemployment, which
doesn’t help those who aren’t legally employed, might start to create
some issues?
I skimmed both posts, and I don’t think so. Seems like a “correlation
therefore it must be causative” analysis.
Scott forgot the most important question, did cops, some of them off
duty, shoot more people?We can tell more cops doesnt cause less
shootings (most policed country in the western world also has the most
shootings), perhaps more angry cops actually causes more shootings.
Jesus christ, I was joking and giving an example of a different type of, out of the box, heterodox, contrarian way to explain the increased deaths. (At least the increase of police shootings doesnt seem to be as bid as the increase in deaths (of course this is the amount of police shootings that we know cops were involved, there is aslo the high amount of 'suicides' from blm protestors and the high amount of proud killers and punishers fans among the usa cops).
I mostly just wanted to see what folks here thought of this post and its predecessor. I regret that I cannot spell homicide and cannot edit the title.
ETA: I don’t even want to argue the point here: that’s just wrestling a pig. What’s shocking to me about this piece is the *certainty* of Scott’s conclusions. We had an unprecedented global pandemic, nationwide lockdowns, economic dislocation, school closures and large-scale protests and policing changes all within a space of three months. How can you possibly have any confidence that one of these unprecedented changes is *the* cause? Scott doesn’t have a convincing answer to this question, nor does he qualify his claim: he states that the protests are the *primary* contributor and then tosses away any countervailing evidence (e.g., clear evidence that the spike began before the protests) as “outliers” or just dismisses them outright. There’s no mask here, there isn’t even makeup.
Scott cherry-picking evidence? no surprise, totally rational
Not gonna read the post—man needs to learn brevity—but this tracks with his other racist opinions.
People in the comments defending convicted murderer Derek Chauvin who we all literally watched kill a man on national tv.
Barely related but man these guys really love the word “codex”
Hey, he has a brand to maintain. And that brand is “racist shmuck.”
I can’t be bothered to read the run-on dribbled drivel (ribble?) in full, but does Scott at any point wrestle with the fact that the murder rate in the U.S. is absolute bonkers compared to other western countries? The charts he has in the original post show the US at 6 murders per 100,00 and the UK at 10 murders per million. You’d think a full 6x difference in the murder rate would cause him to pause and wonder whether the policing was really all that effective. Not only that, but, why are any of these murders occurring at all? How does that intersect with the pandemic going into its 4th month? Maybe the fact that the pandemic help came mainly in the form of unemployment, which doesn’t help those who aren’t legally employed, might start to create some issues?
I skimmed both posts, and I don’t think so. Seems like a “correlation therefore it must be causative” analysis.
Scott forgot the most important question, did cops, some of them off duty, shoot more people?We can tell more cops doesnt cause less shootings (most policed country in the western world also has the most shootings), perhaps more angry cops actually causes more shootings.
Did vigilante behaviour among cops increase?