So the working class are the only ones who have a legitimate claim to violence? Why? Are you making the claim that it is acceptable for Group A to use violence to terrorise Group B into ideological submission? If not, what claim are you making? If so, why is that any different to the legitimate use of violence by the state? Is it simply a numbers game? If so, in a majority fascist country would the fascists not have the same claim to the monopoly on violence?

While I’m asking, do you believe that money is the only form of profit, or could welfare and social capital also be considered profit? If so everyone in the west is profiting off the exploitation of developing nations, including our worst off as they have access to support and infrastructure, however ineffective, than the exploited foreign workers upon whom the existence of our society is predicated. Are you donating all of your money to charitable causes to the point where you live as ascetic a life as them?

EVERY Brexit prediction has come true, exactly as predicted. I’m furious that coronavirus gave propagandists and the UK government another smokescreen to hide behind to sidestep responsibility. The remaining Leavers are too busy falling off lampposts to see the fruits of their decisions for what they are.